Guest mam Posted October 21, 1999 Posted October 21, 1999 I have a plan that is concurrently adding a loan provision and a hardship provision. the h/s provision is safe harbour, and the loan minimum is $1,000. say a participant with a $50,000 fully vested balance is faced with a $10,000 h/s. can he take a loan for the minimum $1,000 (to fulfill that requirement) and request the remaining $9,000 as a h/s? or must he take the maximum loan he's allowed, by law, which in this case would be the entire $10,000?
KJohnson Posted October 21, 1999 Posted October 21, 1999 Generally Participant must max out all available plan loans before receiving a hardship. See 1.401(k)-1(d)(1)(iii)(B)(4). However there are certain exceptions if the plan loan would actually "increase" the amount of the hardship need. (i.e. a participant would not have to take out a plan loan if that loan would disqualify the participant from obtaining a traditional mortgage for a home. In such an instance the plan loan would actually "up" the amount needed as a hardship distribution)
Guest mam Posted October 22, 1999 Posted October 22, 1999 Thanks, KJohnson- I've been trying to find a place on the web where i can print out Section 1.401(k) that you reference. Can you tell me where to go? thanks.
Guest Posted October 22, 1999 Posted October 22, 1999 GO to thomas' the library of COngress web site and it's in the CFR.
MWeddell Posted October 25, 1999 Posted October 25, 1999 Assuming that the plan only allows a participant to take one loan at a time, I think the participant's strategy suggested by mam would work. Note that the participant will have income tax withheld and owed on the $9,000 hardship withdrawal and hence could request more to compensate for the taxes on the withdrawal itself.
KJohnson Posted October 25, 1999 Posted October 25, 1999 MWEDDELL MIGHT BE RIGHT FROM A TECHNICAL STANDPOINT BUT I WOULD BE CAREFUL. I THINK HE CONTEMPLATES: 1) TAKE A $1,000 LOAN ON MONDAY FROM THE PLAN. 2) ON TUESDAY TAKE YOUR HARDSHIP. ASSUMING THE PLAN HAS A ONE LOAN AT A TIME POLICY, YOU SHOULD BE ABLE TO TAKE THE FULL AMOUNT BECAUSE YOU HAVE ALREADY "MAXED OUT" AVIALABLE LOANS. MY QUESTIONS ARE: 1)WOULD THE IRS VIEW THIS AS SUBTERFUGE, AND 2) WOULD YOUR HARDSHIP "NEED" BE ONLY THE $1,000 TO REPAY THE PLAN LOAN THEREBY GIVING YOU RENEWED ACCESS TO A LARGER LOAN FROM THE PLAN.
MWeddell Posted October 25, 1999 Posted October 25, 1999 KJohnson, you have correctly summarized my position. The second point you raise is quite interesting. I don't know that I'll change my mind but it's an excellent point.
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