Guest vqualplan Posted September 28, 2005 Posted September 28, 2005 THis is a takeover plan that was administered by a CPA who apparently did not know that the maximum loan allowd was $50,000. It is my understanding that this is a prohibitive transaction and a Form 5330 should be filed. I would also imagine we need to instruct the Dr to immediately pay the loan off to get the outstanding value under $50,000. Are there any reporting requirements on the 5500? Any advice or links with more detail would be appreciated. Thanks!
JanetM Posted September 28, 2005 Posted September 28, 2005 Seems to me in addition you have to have deemed distribution of the excess $20,000. JanetM CPA, MBA
mbozek Posted September 28, 2005 Posted September 28, 2005 Why isnt the entire loan a lump sum because the loan was invalid at inception? I guess the CPA has malpractice ins. see Reg 1.72(p)-1 A -1 loan is valid at inception if it limits loan to amount under 72(p)(2)(A). mjb
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