Guest tintree73 Posted October 17, 2005 Posted October 17, 2005 Owner owns 100% of new entity X with four NHCEs (entity X is owned directly by Owner). Owner also owns 80% of Entity C (no employees) and Entity C owns 90% of entity Z. Entity Z has a 401(k) plan that Owner wants us (we are Entity Z) to amend to allow employees of new entity X to participate. This clearly seems to be a controlled group situation - is it too good to be true that it is this easy? Please let me know if you think I am wayyyyy off base here.
R. Butler Posted October 18, 2005 Posted October 18, 2005 Based on the info. you've given your analysis appears correct.
Alf Posted October 18, 2005 Posted October 18, 2005 Assuming Owner is an individual and owns X and C in her individual capacity AND that there are no "interesting details" (options, reciprocal repurchase rights, etc), I agree.
R. Butler Posted October 18, 2005 Posted October 18, 2005 Assuming Owner is an individual and owns X and C in her individual capacity AND that there are no "interesting details" (options, reciprocal repurchase rights, etc), I agree. Why do we have to assume the owner is an individual? For the sake of arguement lets assume Owner is a Corp. Corp. Owner owns 100% of X & 80% of C. C owns 90% of Z. Seems to me you still have a parent subsidiary group. Also I don't really want to think about this too much right now, but I don't immediately see how options, etc. take you out of controlled group status.
Guest Pensions in Paradise Posted October 18, 2005 Posted October 18, 2005 Ok, I'm probably wrong, but I don't see how X and Z are a controlled group. I agree that X and C are a controlled group, and that C and Z are a controlled group. But the Owner's ownership percentage of Z is only 72% (80% x 90%).
Guest mrilao Posted October 19, 2005 Posted October 19, 2005 I thought it was a pass through percentage as opposed to the calculation method (discussing ownership from C to Z of 71%) Is that analysis described anywhere-I'm a beginner on this side of it and was confused a bit by pensions in paradise's response. Thanks!
R. Butler Posted October 19, 2005 Posted October 19, 2005 Ok, I'm probably wrong, but I don't see how X and Z are a controlled group. I agree that X and C are a controlled group, and that C and Z are a controlled group. But the Owner's ownership percentage of Z is only 72% (80% x 90%). I looked it initially as a combo group. X & C are a brother/sister group C & Z are a parent/subsidiary group. Under the combo group rules if a parent org. in a parent/subsidiary group is also part of a brother/sister group, all orgs are part of 1 group.
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