Guest skc Posted December 22, 2005 Posted December 22, 2005 New company started 4/1/05 by two shareholders each over 5% owner. New employee hired 9/1/05. New Plan says all employees hired as of 4/1/05 eligible with no service requirement but all other employees require 1 year with over 1000 hours. Does this pass 410?
Tom Poje Posted December 22, 2005 Posted December 22, 2005 at the 1999 ASPPA Annual Conference the IRS response was that they did not see this eligibility provision as a discriminatory amendment. it needs to be rememebred that such comments are unofficial postions. (This particular question is referenced in Q 6:14.1 of the Coverage and Nondiscrimination Answer Book Supplement - though for better or worse the actual Q and A sort of got combined into the answer.) Ugh, don't remind me, I have to work on the Supplement for next year, but I can make this one a little clearer. I would point out that the particular question was in reference to a Standardized plan, and did not address the issue of a new company, simply a new plan. however the IRS response seemed broad enough to apply to all plans. personally, I have a problem in a scenario if owners are let in immediately, and the rank and file who were hired on day 2 have to wait a year. that smells bad.
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