Guest hitt24 Posted January 17, 2006 Posted January 17, 2006 If a plan sponsor if selling two stores from it's overall portfolio of stores, what happens to the 401(k) vesting of the participants who work at that store? Do they automatically become 100% vested? If not, could the plan sponsor, as a good will effort, make all of these employees 100% vested in the 401(k) plan? Or would this be viewed as discriminatory.
Tom Poje Posted January 17, 2006 Posted January 17, 2006 well, its possible that could be a partial termination and those people would become 100% vested. there are no hard and fast rules that I know of, if those people represent 20% of the entire employees then they around the % the IRS uses for determining such things.
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