Guest dstran Posted March 1, 2006 Posted March 1, 2006 A participant took a loan out of the plan for $50,000 on 2-24-05 but decided he didn't need the loan and returned the check on 3-11-05. The ptp tried to take a loan out in 1-06 but was told he had to wait until 3-12-06 to take a loan out due to the ability to only take 1 loan out in a 12-month period. Even though he returned the check, does he still have to wait a year? Please advise asap. Thanks
stephen Posted March 1, 2006 Posted March 1, 2006 I'm interested in what others have to say but I think since he took the loan his loan maximum is $50,000 - $50,000 = 0 until the 12 months has passed. Since his loan balance was presumably still 50,000 when he paid off the loan 3/11/05 he must wait until 3/12/06 to take out a new loan. The fact that he paid it off early does not change the fact that he took the loan or that his balance was $50,000 on 3/11/05.
Guest mjb Posted March 1, 2006 Posted March 1, 2006 Why is this a repayment of the loan if the participant returned the check without cashing it? It would be a loan if the participant cashed the check and then wrote another check to the plan for 50k. I thought that borrowing money required that the borrower accept the funds from the lender by cashing the loan check. What does the loan document/note say about when the money is borrowed?
stephen Posted March 1, 2006 Posted March 1, 2006 Does it have any affect if the participant signed the truth in lending statement and promissory note did they take out the loan or if a loan fee was taken out off the top?
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