Guest Hans Lewis Posted April 15, 2006 Posted April 15, 2006 Can anyone give a legally correct answer to this question and provide sources to support the answer. I currently have a funds in a QDCF plan (Qualified Deferred Comp Funded plan). I would like to start taking distributions now. However, the form requires "spousal consent" because my spouse is the beneficiary. It doesn't seem fair that I can not even retrieve my own retirement funds if my spouse doesn't care to cooperate. Is this requirement legal or just an attempt to retain my funds and cover themselves. I don't know if this is considered a 457 plan or not. Thanks
david rigby Posted April 16, 2006 Posted April 16, 2006 Duplicate posting! http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=32083&hl= I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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