Lori H Posted August 8, 2006 Posted August 8, 2006 An employee of an HVAC company which sponsors a 401(k)sop wants to start his own company and rollover his acccount balance (appx $70,000) to his own company's plan. He will be the onnly employee and wishes to have a loan provision in the plan, obtain a $10,000 loan to assist with start up costs and effectively repay the loan back. I'm thinking this may be a prohibited transaction and that he could do a partial distribution of say $15,000, pay the taxes, use the net towards the start up costs and roll over the balance of appx $55,000. thoughts?
Guest Pensions in Paradise Posted August 8, 2006 Posted August 8, 2006 Assuming its a valid loan (i.e., loan documents signed, payments made at least quarterly, etc.), why do you think this would be a PT? One person plans are subject to the same PT exemption as other plans with regard to participant loans. He can take the loan.
jpod Posted August 8, 2006 Posted August 8, 2006 I can't think of a reason why he could not take a loan from his company's 401a plan; what he does with the loan proceeds is not relevant. What do you mean by "effectively" repay the loan?
four01kman Posted August 8, 2006 Posted August 8, 2006 Lori, I can't think of why this would be a prohibited transaction. Employer creates a plan; employee rolls over balances from another plan; employee takes allowed loan. What the employee does with the proceeds is immaterial. Jim Geld
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