2 plans... one an owner.. one an employee

[K-t-F]

client will be 70.5 in January 2007. He has a plan himself but also works for a totally different company. We will take the RMD from his plan no later than 4/1/2008 but since he is not an owner of the company sponsoring the other plan and is still actively employed he is not required to take a RMD from that plan.... correct?

also, His plan is a MP... other plan is a 401K.

Any faults in my reasoning pointed out or observations appreciated!

Thanks

[WDIK]

but since he is not an owner of the company sponsoring the other plan and is still actively employed he is not required to take a RMD from that plan.... correct?

Correct, assuming the plan language allows it.