Santo Gold Posted January 17, 2007 Posted January 17, 2007 The father-in-law of the owner is currently employed and is over 70-1/2. Is it necessary that he receive a minimum distribution as long as he stays employed? Thanks
Belgarath Posted January 17, 2007 Posted January 17, 2007 Probably not. Stock can only be attributed once through family members. (IRC 318(a)(5)) But, for example, if the owner is not a 100% owner and the spouse owns any stock directly, or there are options involved, then it is possible that the father-in-law would have to receive a RMD.
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