Guest JD698 Posted April 24, 2008 Posted April 24, 2008 An employee (before normal retirement age) terminates his/her employment with an employer who, pursuant to a CBA, contributes to a multiemployer money purchase plan, and the plan language provides for distributions upon termination of employment. Would it be problematic if the employee, at a later date: a. began working for the same contributing employer in a capacity where contributions are not required or b. began working for a different contributing employer where contributions are required. The plan language is generic and just states termination of employment without going into any specifics. The trustees, pursuant to the plan, can rely on their interpretation of the plan language. My thought is that in both of the above situations, there was a "termination of employment" and that maybe the plan should be amended to specifically address the above issues. Any thoughts or ideas? Thanks.
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