Bruddah Kimo Posted May 12, 2008 Posted May 12, 2008 Can a Safe-Harbor Non-Elective 401k plan (3% of comp) use a definition of comp that excludes bonuses? Or must the plan use a safe harbor definition of compensation even if it passes the Compensation Ratio Test? Just want to be sure, I've seen conflicting info on this.....thank you!
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted May 12, 2008 Posted May 12, 2008 If that definition passes 414(s) and your document allows you to do so. Be sure to look in the plan document, which spells that out, probably something in the 401(k) /(m) section, something like Safe Harbor Compensation "the Employer must apply a nondiscriminatory definition of Compensation..." edit: typo
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