Guest tajcc Posted August 20, 2008 Posted August 20, 2008 If there was an error on the TPA's part where a participant's vesting schedule was not applied correctly and there was an overpayment of the distribution to the participant in the amount of $2,500.00 - the TPA is going to cut a check including earnings to the plan's forfeiture account as they cannot obtain the overpayment back. Does this warrant going through a formal submission to the IRS or would this fall within the self correction program? Thank you.
mming Posted August 20, 2008 Posted August 20, 2008 Maybe it would be simpler for the TPA to pay the employer and then have the employer make a restorative payment to the plan. I imagine the TPA could be considered a party in interest since it provides services to the plan and a prohibited transaction could be created if they make a deposit. I've seen employers make restorative payments without going through any IRS correction programs, however I'm not sure whether that's OK.
Guest dbvail Posted August 21, 2008 Posted August 21, 2008 I agree. More to the point, the plan administrator (employer) is the only entity that can make the payment. Where they get reimbursed from is secondary. At least as I see it.
Guest Sieve Posted August 22, 2008 Posted August 22, 2008 I would agree with mming that this probably is a restorative payment (made to repay the plan for losses due to a breach of fiduciary duty). Neither the 2006 EPCRS nor the new 2008 EPCRS specifically mentions restorative payments, but the 2008 EPCRS provides that it will consider DOL-approved corrections as appropriate corrections to similar violations under EPCRS (Section 6.02(2)(e)(iii))--but I don't see a restorative payment as correcting any EPCRS-covered failures (other than, perhaps, a failure to follow the plan's terms, if the terms specifically prohibit breaches of fiduciary duty). DOL's VFCP does not mention fiduciary breach restorative payments as a correctable fiduciary breach. So, I think this is just a correction that is made in the same manner that a PT would be corrected to prevent the 100%-level tax--just fix it as best you can. But, I think the correction should also include any lost earnings while the $$ were not in the plan.
Guest tajcc Posted August 26, 2008 Posted August 26, 2008 Thank you all for the replies. So say the TPA pays the employer for their mistake including earnings. For the proper correction of the accounts - does the plan administrator/trustee have to submit formally to the IRS for approval through EPCRS?
Guest Sieve Posted August 26, 2008 Posted August 26, 2008 Looking at this again, it probably can be characterized as payment of an excess amount (i.e., more than the participant was entitled to receive), and that can be self-corrected. It should be repaid with interest and otherwise meet EPCRS requirements (including informing the participant that the excess amount he/she received is not eligible for rollover treatment). May also require revision of 1099-R, but I don't know for sure.
Kimberly S Posted August 26, 2008 Posted August 26, 2008 The excess was not eligible for rollover. Along with the attempt to recover the payment the participant must be notified of that fact.
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