jkharvey Posted January 22, 2009 Posted January 22, 2009 I want to be sure I understand this correctly. I have a participant who terminated in 2008 at age 74. This was not a 5% owner so the RBD is not until 4/1/2009. Since the RMD due 4/1/2009 was actually for 2008, the amount is still due but the 2009 distribution is not. Is that correct?
J Simmons Posted January 22, 2009 Posted January 22, 2009 That's my understanding, too. John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
Kevin C Posted January 22, 2009 Posted January 22, 2009 Notice 2009-9 also agrees with you. http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-drop/n-09-09.pdf
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