Guest dms9999 Posted March 27, 2009 Posted March 27, 2009 Participant takes unpaid leave on January 2, 2008 which is the date of his last loan repayment. Does loan default on 1/2/09 or is it possible to inerpret 72(p) to allow a cure period to allow payment to begin prior to 6/30/09? Participant will be going back on payroll next week. 72-(p) Q&A 10 does not specifically state this but IRS Q&A with the ABA in 2003 stated that the cure period would allow a loan to extend beyond 5 years if the last payment of the loan was missed. Loan policy would not prohibit this interpretation. Thanks
J Simmons Posted April 3, 2009 Posted April 3, 2009 I agree with IRS Q&A with the ABA in 2003 as you explain it. If 1/2/09, the due date of the last repayment, was no more than 5 years from when the loan was made, you should be fine even if the plan loan program and loan documents do not call for default to occur until a payment is late within the regulatory allowance (last day of calendar quarter first following the one in which the payment was due), i.e. 6/30/09 on your facts. But check the applicable documents to make sure they do not call for default to occur earlier than that. John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now