Guest P Williamson Posted June 16, 2009 Posted June 16, 2009 Is it permissible for a loan policy to limit plan loans to only fully vested participants?
WDIK Posted June 16, 2009 Posted June 16, 2009 I would be concerned about the "reasonably equivalent basis" requirement as well as the likelihood that such a scenario would make loans more available to highly compensated employees. I am not familiar with a specific prohibition or permission. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
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