Guest Philip2 Posted August 5, 2009 Posted August 5, 2009 Client has existing 401(k) plan. Salaried employees were not eligible to participate. Client wants to make salaried employees eligible 10/1. Does the amendment have to be adopted before 10/1, that is, before these employees begin participating? Or do we have until the end of the year to adopt the amendment.
J Simmons Posted August 6, 2009 Posted August 6, 2009 If you are wanting them eligible from 10/1 to the end of the plan year for purposes of their compensation counting in the allocation of a profit sharing contribution for the year, then you have until the end of the plan year to amend retro and make them eligible as of 10/1. For 401k purposes, and their making elective deferrals, it is as a practical matter impossible to give them the retro opportunity to defer out of paychecks from paydays that have passed before the amendment. John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
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