Guest Margaret25 Posted March 4, 2010 Posted March 4, 2010 We are working on a takeover 401(k) plan that includes a match allocation based on years of service. Eligibility requirements for the match are 2 years of service/age 21. The client wishes to use the following formula for the upcoming year: 0% match for participants with 0-3 years of service 25% match for participants with 4-10 years of service 50% match for participants with more than 10 years of service Assume that coverage and nondiscrimination testing will pass (no HCE’s). With a participant receiving a 0% match until attaining more than 3 years of service, does this impose an impermissible service requirement for receiving the match contribution?
austin3515 Posted March 6, 2010 Posted March 6, 2010 Sounds like a 3 year eligiblity to me, which would violate 410(a)... Me thinks this is very very bad... Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Below Ground Posted March 6, 2010 Posted March 6, 2010 Me too. Having braved the blizzard, I take a moment to contemplate the meaning of life. Should I really be riding in such cold? Why are my goggles covered with a thin layer of ice? Will this effect coverage testing? QPA, QKA
Guest Sieve Posted March 6, 2010 Posted March 6, 2010 I don't disagree with your answer, but let me pose this . . . I presume you would have no problem with the match formula if it was tiered as follows: 10% for 3 y/s (really, it's 0% for 1-2 y/s, due to 2 y/s participation in OP), 25% for 4-10 y/s and 50% for more than 10 years of service (as long as it passes BRF testing). So, what is the minimum amount that would be acceptable for the first tier? 5%? 3% 1? (Isn't a 1/2% accrual sufficient for 401(a)(26) purposes?)
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now