Gary Posted October 9, 2010 Posted October 9, 2010 My understanding is that in order to termnate a 401k PS plan it requires a resolution and a plan amendment and maybe even additional statutory compliance amendments to be based on current laws. Are there situations where just a resolution is sufficient? Don't have the specific plan doc I am referring to, but a standard doc I use suggests that a plan term canbe facilitated upon delivery of written notice to the plan administrator or trustee. I don't necessarily assume that to mean that a resolution (and no amedment is sufficient). Thanks
austin3515 Posted October 9, 2010 Posted October 9, 2010 all you need is a resolution since the provisions of the plan are not being changed. Your just pulling the plug on it. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
K2retire Posted October 9, 2010 Posted October 9, 2010 But you may also need to accelerate adoption of some mandatory amendments whose remdial amendment period have not yet passed.
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