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My understanding is that in order to termnate a 401k PS plan it requires a resolution and a plan amendment and maybe even additional statutory compliance amendments to be based on current laws.

Are there situations where just a resolution is sufficient?

Don't have the specific plan doc I am referring to, but a standard doc I use suggests that a plan term canbe facilitated upon delivery of written notice to the plan administrator or trustee. I don't necessarily assume that to mean that a resolution (and no amedment is sufficient).

Thanks

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