Earl Posted December 16, 2010 Posted December 16, 2010 A client of mine had his CPA tell him he could use the level amortization method for his RMD calculation. I thought that was only for avoiding the extra 10% tax if you are under 59 1/2. (And it specifies no additions other than g/l, but my client will not be making more contributions.) I can't find any reference to it satisfying the RMD requirements. Am I missing something or is the CPA missing something? Thanks! CBW
masteff Posted December 16, 2010 Posted December 16, 2010 You're right, the CPA has crossed a wire on "substantially equal payments" vs MRDs. Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
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