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Posted

Participant terminates in 2005 after working 600 hours; has a break-in-service in 2006, 2007, 2008 and 2009. He is rehired in December 2010, worked 100 hours. Does 2010 count as the 5th consecutive break-in-service whereby prior service is disregarded? My inclination is thta it does, but obviously not positive.

Thanks in advance for any guidance.

Posted

Note that neither 410(a)(5) nor its cross-reference 411(a)(6) say anything about termination of employment.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted
Note that neither 410(a)(5) nor its cross-reference 411(a)(6) say anything about termination of employment.

Agreed, but the document seems to specifically apply the rule to rehires in this case.

Thank you for your help.

Posted

Was this individual a participant before termination of employment? Was he/she vested in any source?

Posted
Was this individual a participant before termination of employment? Was he/she vested in any source?

Actually individual was not a participant, but had satisifed eligiblity. I refer to the employee as a participant because the document essentially treats such employees as participants who terminated with 0% vesting. The document essentially provides that if the employee terminated without a vested interest in the plan and is later reemployed the prior service will be disregarded if the number of consecutive 1 year breaks in service exceeds 5. In my situation, 2010 is both the rehire year and the 5th consecutive 1-year break.

Thank you for your help.

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