mgcpension Posted March 17, 2011 Posted March 17, 2011 A tax client has a safe-harbor 401(k) plan that includes prevailing wage contributions. Is there any reason that an owner's son would not be allowed to defer or receive the PW contribution, assuming the plan document allows for PW contributions to all eligible employees and the son has met the plan's eligibility rules?
Below Ground Posted March 17, 2011 Posted March 17, 2011 Why not? Outside of something in that specific Plan document, there is no prohibition of those contributions to any owner or family member. Having braved the blizzard, I take a moment to contemplate the meaning of life. Should I really be riding in such cold? Why are my goggles covered with a thin layer of ice? Will this effect coverage testing? QPA, QKA
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