KJohnson Posted February 24, 2000 Posted February 24, 2000 A law firm has a top-heavy profit sharing plan that excludes associate attorneys but passes coverage. It begins a separate 401(k)plan for elective deferrals only, allows associates to particpate, but also allows key employees to participate. The plans, on an aggregate basis are top heavy. 1) I assume the firm now have to make a 3% contribution for associates into the 401(k) plan. Is that correct? 2) Is there a way around this prospectively?. It does not appear that the 401(k) can be terminated and a new plan started includng associates/non-keys only because of the successor plan rules combined with the fact that there is an existing profit sharing plan covering more than 2% of those who were eligible for the 401(k). 3) If the 401(k) Plan was "frozen" so no future deferrals were allowed, would a top heavy contribution still be required because of the frozen plan's aggregation with the profit sharing plan and the fact that keys are getting 3% or more into the profit sharing plan? 4) If you prospectively eliminate participation of the keys in the 401(k) would you then have to wait 5 years for mandatory aggregation not to apply? 5) Any other ideas? [This message has been edited by KJohnson (edited 02-25-2000).]
John A Posted March 2, 2000 Posted March 2, 2000 Unfortunately, my answers below are just educated guesses, but for what they're worth: 1) I assume the firm now have to make a 3% contribution for associates into the 401(k) plan. Is that correct? Yes, that's correct. 2) Is there a way around this prospectively?. It does not appear that the 401(k) can be terminated and a new plan started includng associates/non-keys only because of the successor plan rules combined with the fact that there is an existing profit sharing plan covering more than 2% of those who were eligible for the 401(k). I don't know if there's a way around this prospectively. 3) If the 401(k) Plan was "frozen" so no future deferrals were allowed, would a top heavy contribution still be required because of the frozen plan's aggregation with the profit sharing plan and the fact that keys are getting 3% or more into the profit sharing plan? Yes. 4) If you prospectively eliminate participation of the keys in the 401(k) would you then have to wait 5 years for mandatory aggregation not to apply? I don't know. 5) Any other ideas? No. I'm sorry I can't be more helpful on these.
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