Guest Pennysaver Posted August 29, 2011 Posted August 29, 2011 Is there any prohibited transaction issue with the distribution to a disqualified person of real property that is mortgaged? It's not considered a loan between the plan and disqualified person as long as both the real property and its mortgage are distributed, correct?
ETA Consulting LLC Posted August 29, 2011 Posted August 29, 2011 On the surface, a distribution to any participant of any property (distributed at fair market value) is not a prohibited transaction. I would, however, take possible exception to the fact that the property has a mortgage on it. I can see instances where that could be construed as a prohibited transaction. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA
Guest Pennysaver Posted August 29, 2011 Posted August 29, 2011 On the surface, a distribution to any participant of any property (distributed at fair market value) is not a prohibited transaction. I would, however, take possible exception to the fact that the property has a mortgage on it. I can see instances where that could be construed as a prohibited transaction.Good Luck! What instances might those be? It doesn't appear to be a sale, either; the IRS classifies as a prohibited transaction the transfer of encumbered property by a disqualified person to a plan where the plan assumes the mortgage. (IRC 4975(f)(3)) It doesn't say anything about the reverse. Plus, is a distribution the equivalent of a transfer?
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