Guest Posted April 6, 2000 Posted April 6, 2000 A owns 85% of company X, 10% of Company Y and 60% of Company Z. There are no controlled group issues. Companies A and B pay A director's fees in excess of $100,000 and no comp. Company C pays him a salary. For deferral purposes, how many 415 limits does A have? Although all three companies are unrelated, I believe there are two limits: Company Z and the combined director's fees from Companies X and Y. Regarding X and Y, A's director's fees are reported on a 1099. I believe he is essentially and independent contractor with being a director his business. Is my reasoning correct?
Guest Posted April 6, 2000 Posted April 6, 2000 Something else just occurred to me. Do the employees of X have to be included in the coverage testing for A's director's plan?
Guest JAREL Posted April 6, 2000 Posted April 6, 2000 For 415 purposes, the ownership threshhold drops to 50% so I think Company Z must be combined with the Directors fees when computing 415 limits. Because he is considered a 100% owner of his own self-employment (directors fees), I think employees of Company X must be aggregated with him for other purposes since he owns 80% of Company X and 100% of SE. I assume here that you mean to refer only to Companies X, Y and Z.
KJohnson Posted April 6, 2000 Posted April 6, 2000 Don't the 415 limits only drop to 50% for parent/sub but brother/sister remains at 80%?
Guest Posted April 7, 2000 Posted April 7, 2000 For 415 purposes, the 80% rule is reduced to 50% for only parent-child groups, brother-sister groups are not affected. See 415(h). We have a brother-sister situation here.
Guest Posted April 7, 2000 Posted April 7, 2000 It seems that my principal concern is whether or not A's s/e plan for director's fees constitutes a controlled group with Company X. The company has a 401(k) plan. Can he maintain a s/e plan?
Guest Posted April 7, 2000 Posted April 7, 2000 Parent-Subsidiary? Jarel may have a point. A is a sole proprietor for his directorship profession. If he was a corporation, we clearly would have a parent-subsidiary controlled group situation, and the 50% control test would apply. Can it be argued that we have the same situation when a sole proprietor has an ownership interest in a corporation? Just playing the devil's advocate here, but deserves some consideration.
Guest JAREL Posted April 7, 2000 Posted April 7, 2000 With respect to Company X and SE, I don't think it matters whether we have a brother-sister or parent-sub controlled group. A owns 85% of Company X. My concern would be with coverage and nondiscrimination. Concerning the 415 issue, I stand corrected (thank you). The 50% won't apply in this case.
Guest Posted April 7, 2000 Posted April 7, 2000 So, he has two 415 limits, one for his trade or business of director and one as an employee of Company. I agree with discrimination and coverage issues with Company X. Furtherore, under the leased owner rules of Reg 1.414(0)-1(B)(2) we may have problem with all three companies. If a plan covers a "leased owner" (ie A's plan for director's fees), that plan is treated as maintained by the recipient employer. This is getting very esoteric, but any comments?
Guest Posted April 8, 2000 Posted April 8, 2000 Based on subsequent research, I believe this represents a leased owner situation and A cannot maintain a plan for his director's income.
Guest Posted May 8, 2000 Posted May 8, 2000 Under the "leased owner" rules, does a SEP produce the same result as a qualified plan? I believe it would, but Prop. Reg. 414(o)-1 refers to "qualified plan." It doesn't seem reasonable that a leased owner can do with a SEP what he cannot do with a qualified plan. Thanks.
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