Guest YvonneT Posted October 19, 2011 Posted October 19, 2011 I have looked at several other posts regarding controlled groups but just want to make sure my thinking is correct. I have a person who owns 100% of Co. A and 70% of Co. B. (I don't know who owns remaining 30% of Co. B.) I think this does not constitute a controlled group because there is not 80% common ownership. Is this correct? Is there any way it would be considered a controlled group if remaining 30% is owned by a family member that is subject to attribution?
Jim Chad Posted October 19, 2011 Posted October 19, 2011 Yes, certain family members owning 10% could make it a controlled group. And if a business owns part of the other 30% and this person owns any part of the other company, get and ERISA attorney. IMNTBHO
Guest Sieve Posted October 19, 2011 Posted October 19, 2011 Correct, no controlled group as currently constituted (unless other person's 30% ownership of Co. B somehow is attributed to the 100% owner of Co. A).
doombuggy Posted October 19, 2011 Posted October 19, 2011 I have a similar situation, but it is 11 companies with one common owner in all and if I figured it correctly, 4 seperate control groups. But as far as your attribution question, I would agree. Because 3 of these companies I mentioned are considered a control group because son owns Co A 100%, Co B 67% and Co C 67%, with mom owning the other 33% of B & C. Attribution rules hold for her to him, hence the control group (at least for these 3) QKA, QPA, ERPA
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