pmacduff Posted October 26, 2011 Posted October 26, 2011 Here's the setup... Company A = Owner #1 50% and Owner #2 50% Company B = same Owner #1 20% ; same Owner #2 20%, Owner #3 20%, Owner #4 20% and Owner #5 20% All of these owners receive payroll under only Company A and the owners plan balances are all under Company A. Do you concur that for top heavy determination purposes on Company A I use only the balances for Owner #1 and Owner #2?
Jim Chad Posted October 27, 2011 Posted October 27, 2011 Did owners 3,4, or 5 ever own any of company A? When?
pmacduff Posted October 27, 2011 Author Posted October 27, 2011 No - the ownership for both Companies has always been the same - 3,4 & 5 never had any ownership in Co A.
pmacduff Posted November 11, 2011 Author Posted November 11, 2011 Can I push this back up?...Jim...anything......??
12AX7 Posted November 18, 2011 Posted November 18, 2011 Unless there is constructive ownership through family attribution, I don't see a controlled group in this situation.
Lou S. Posted November 18, 2011 Posted November 18, 2011 I agree with 12ax7, no CG here. Unless you have ASG or family attribution issues then owners 3, 4 and 5 are not key in by virtue of the more than 5% or more than 1%/comp so unless they are key by officer/comp they are not key in the determination.
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