jmartin Posted December 6, 2011 Posted December 6, 2011 Facts: - Plan allows for two loans outstanding at a time (for any reason) - Participant has $100,000 balance - Participant takes $20,000 loan for 5 years (payments have not started) - bi-weekly payment is $170 Participant wants to pay a lump sum payment (outside payroll) of $15,000, leaving a balance of $5,000. He would like to re-finance the loan based on the $5,000 balance. This would result in a much lower payroll deduction (down to approx $40 a pay). can this be done? Would the new loan still be taken for 5 years. Again no payments have started. He also wanted to know if he could transfer $15-$20k from an IRA to the 401k plan and count that as a lump sum payment. I assumed that answer to be no.
Lou S. Posted December 6, 2011 Posted December 6, 2011 I don't see any legal IRS problems with what you are trying to do with respect to limits or what is allowable. Just make sure the refinance doesn't extend beying the original 5 year period. You also need to make sure your loan program allows for it. As for paying with IRA assets via direct transfer, that would be a rollover in, not as a lump-sum loan payment.
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