Guest RW Posted June 21, 2000 Posted June 21, 2000 Corp. A sponsors a 401(k) plan in which wholly owned Sub. B participates. In 1999, Corp. A owned Subs. C, D and E in addition to Sub. B. During 1999, all Subs. except B were sold. How does the "transfer of less than 85% of assets of a trade or business" rule apply to the above scenario, if at all?
Alf Posted June 21, 2000 Posted June 21, 2000 I am not clear about which rule you are asking about. Is it the substantially (>85%) all the assets distribution event rule in the code and regs or the less than substantially all (<85%) of the assets exception to the same desk rule?
Guest RW Posted June 22, 2000 Posted June 22, 2000 What's the difference? Can you answer the question under both rules?
Guest hank Posted June 22, 2000 Posted June 22, 2000 Could be a big difference in whether "separation from service" distributions from the plan are permitted, RW. Rev. Rul 2000-27 ("Same Desk Rule Lite" )applies in certain circumstances when there is sale of less than substantially all assets (i.e., less than 85%). For the full-blooded application of IRS' same desk rule, consult Treas. Reg. 1.401(k)-1(d)(4) and Rev. Rul. 79-336.
Richard Anderson Posted June 22, 2000 Posted June 22, 2000 Whose is going to get a distribution? Subs C. D. and E were sold, but Corp A and Sub B were the participating employers.
Guest RW Posted June 22, 2000 Posted June 22, 2000 Can Sub. B get a distribution? After the other Subs were sold, Sub. B was the only Sub. left under Co. A.
MWeddell Posted June 28, 2000 Posted June 28, 2000 No, employees in Sub B were not affected by the transaction. They have not experienced a distributable event.
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