Guest Donell Posted February 27, 2012 Posted February 27, 2012 I have a participant that has requested a hardship distribution to purchase the home he is in that he's leased for 3 years. The lease is up the end of March and he wants to purchase the home. He is unable to get a mortgage due to his credit and the lender has agreed to sell him the home if he can pay about $30K to bring the amount owed down to an amount he can afford. There are back taxes that are owed and I know this is not an eligible expense. What does he need to provide in order for this request to be eligible for hardship? Of can he?
ETA Consulting LLC Posted February 28, 2012 Posted February 28, 2012 Backtaxes should be considered part of the purchase price (within obvious reason). If you have $40K in backtaxes on a $20K house, then that would clearly undermine the intent of "purchasing a primary residence". But, if $30K would make the purchase happen, then that should qualify. Documentation is key. It has to 'pass the muster'. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA
QDROphile Posted February 28, 2012 Posted February 28, 2012 The hardship amount should be sent to escrow with appropriate instructions, including self-serving instructions that the amout is to be applied to the purchase. The escrow also provides a basis for taking the funds back into the plan if the deal collapses, and this deal looks uncertain.
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