jmartin Posted April 10, 2012 Posted April 10, 2012 Have a plan with about twenty-five or so partners who file a K1. Most of the partners have ownership but below 5%. A 1% owner (or really between 0-5%) would become a key employee if their "wages" exceeds $150k. For a partner, what "wage" should you use? For example, a partner with 2.5% ownership has $162k reported on K1. After reducing by his share of the non-key employer contribution, 1/2 SE tax, and their own employer contribution, his "plan compensation (or testing compensation) is $146k. If I use the 162k, he would be a key. If I use the $146k he is not. The plan is going to be top heavy no matter what but wanted it to be precise since we recently took this plan over.
ETA Consulting LLC Posted April 10, 2012 Posted April 10, 2012 You'd use the $146K because that is the statutory definition of his "Earned Income" for plan purposes. Keep in mind that he "MAY" become a "Former Key" employee, and should be treated as such during this analysis; as Former Key Employees are excluded from the analysis. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA
jmartin Posted April 10, 2012 Author Posted April 10, 2012 You'd use the $146K because that is the statutory definition of his "Earned Income" for plan purposes. Keep in mind that he "MAY" become a "Former Key" employee, and should be treated as such during this analysis; as Former Key Employees are excluded from the analysis.Good Luck! Followup question. Say the participant earned $160k in 2010. In 2011 he earned $146k. My guess is he is a key for 2010 and a former key for 2011. Would you agree?
MoShawn Posted April 10, 2012 Posted April 10, 2012 12/31/10 determination to determine plan's TH status for 2011 = Key 12/31/11 determination to determine plan's TH status for 2012 = Former Key
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