austin3515 Posted September 4, 2012 Posted September 4, 2012 100% Owner of the business wants the plan's admin for two quarters (around $1,000) paid from just his own 401(k) plan account. Does anyone see a problem with this? I think it should be treated as a taxcable distriubtion to the owner considering the circumstances. It just smells like an in-service distribution disguised as a fee. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
PFranckowiak Posted September 4, 2012 Posted September 4, 2012 What does the document say? I would think that fees either have to be prorata, or specific fees for that participant.
austin3515 Posted September 4, 2012 Author Posted September 4, 2012 Let's say hypothetically we amended the plan to allow for it. Would that be a permissible amendment? Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
mbozek Posted September 4, 2012 Posted September 4, 2012 Why does the owner want to reduce his account balance? Why not deduct it as an employer expense in connection with the plan under reg. 1.404(a)-3(d)? mjb
austin3515 Posted September 4, 2012 Author Posted September 4, 2012 Not to be fresh, but just going out on a limb here, I'm guessing he has no money. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Lou S. Posted September 4, 2012 Posted September 4, 2012 Let's say hypothetically we amended the plan to allow for it. Would that be a permissible amendment? Sounds like discrimination against an HCE which the IRS is generally cool about. DOL is usually worried about non-owner employees so I personally don't see a problem with it. But I can't say that I've ever seen it done quite like this either.
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