jkharvey Posted March 18, 2013 Posted March 18, 2013 The participant's spouse is going to be the only person on the mortgage and, therefore, the deed. Would this qualify as a hardship distribution for the participant whose principal residence this is, but who isn't actually legally a purchaser?
Jim Chad Posted March 18, 2013 Posted March 18, 2013 I thought it was not possible for a married person to buy real estate and not have spouse's name on the deed. So I have no idea if this is OK. Does anyone else?
masteff Posted March 18, 2013 Posted March 18, 2013 I'm going to suggest you review your plan for the specific wording used there. Then see this recent thread: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?/topic/52446-personal-residence-hardship/?hl=%22principal+residence%22 Your scenario is a bit cleaner since it's husband/wife vs uncle/niece in the other thread. I don't think my answer has changed in 6 months. Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
K2retire Posted March 19, 2013 Posted March 19, 2013 Many plans allow a hardship for a beneficiary's need. Is the spouse also the beneficiary?
QDROphile Posted March 19, 2013 Posted March 19, 2013 Read Notice 2007-7 concerning consideration of hardship of beneficiaries. Purchase of residence is not included.
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