emmetttrudy Posted April 16, 2013 Posted April 16, 2013 A business owner has a 401k Plan and a DB Plan. He receives a K-1. Would like to contribute the maximum allowable -> DB contribution + deferrals + 6% profit sharing. Is the 6% profit sharing contribution calculated based on his net earned income prior to deducting the DB contribution?
rcline46 Posted April 16, 2013 Posted April 16, 2013 It all is done a once. Hope you are billing enough for the 'fun' doing it all at once. And if you give a range for DB contributions, it gets funner! Hope he makes soooooo much he is always over $255,000! K2retire 1
emmetttrudy Posted April 16, 2013 Author Posted April 16, 2013 What do you mean if it is all done at once?
Bill Presson Posted April 16, 2013 Posted April 16, 2013 What do you mean if it is all done at once? Meaning that, if the compensation starts or ends up below $255,000, the entire calculation is circular. If the DB amount changes, then the comp changes which changes the DC amount which changes the comp amount, etc, etc. William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA bill.presson@gmail.com C 205.994.4070
emmetttrudy Posted April 16, 2013 Author Posted April 16, 2013 OK, so it sounds like the 6% PS contribution does depend on the DB contribution. So if the comp is below $255k, you use the comp minus db contribution for the calc of the 6%?
rcline46 Posted April 16, 2013 Posted April 16, 2013 No. Look at it in a simple way - set the Schedule SE. See the Social Security/Fica tax, look for 1/2 of that BIG number and subtract it. Most of that calculation is actually on the SE. Now you have your working number, and the answer is 'simple'. DC+DB+'Benefit Comp' = Earned Income less 1/2 Self Employment (FICA) taxes. Since the right hand side is FIXED, the left side gets wiggly (that is a technical term). So you had better lock down your DB number first.
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