Jump to content

Recommended Posts

Posted

A business owner has a 401k Plan and a DB Plan. He receives a K-1. Would like to contribute the maximum allowable -> DB contribution + deferrals + 6% profit sharing. Is the 6% profit sharing contribution calculated based on his net earned income prior to deducting the DB contribution?

Posted

It all is done a once. Hope you are billing enough for the 'fun' doing it all at once. And if you give a range for DB contributions, it gets funner! Hope he makes soooooo much he is always over $255,000!

Posted

What do you mean if it is all done at once?

Meaning that, if the compensation starts or ends up below $255,000, the entire calculation is circular. If the DB amount changes, then the comp changes which changes the DC amount which changes the comp amount, etc, etc.

William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA
bill.presson@gmail.com
C 205.994.4070

 

Posted

OK, so it sounds like the 6% PS contribution does depend on the DB contribution. So if the comp is below $255k, you use the comp minus db contribution for the calc of the 6%?

Posted

No. Look at it in a simple way - set the Schedule SE. See the Social Security/Fica tax, look for 1/2 of that BIG number and subtract it. Most of that calculation is actually on the SE.

Now you have your working number, and the answer is 'simple'. DC+DB+'Benefit Comp' = Earned Income less 1/2 Self Employment (FICA) taxes. Since the right hand side is FIXED, the left side gets wiggly (that is a technical term). So you had better lock down your DB number first.

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Terms of Use