Guest Don N Posted January 7, 2000 Posted January 7, 2000 I'm hoping someone can help with this one; my expected unfunded liability is -50 for the prior year & my actual unfunded from the current valuation is -100; do I set up an experience loss base of 0( by setting both to 0 ) or 50 (by only setting the actual to 0) ? Full Funding has never applied and there's no credit balance; I seem to remember from some notes in the past that expecteds can be less than 0 & only actuals have to be set to 0 (Rev.Ruling 81-213).
david rigby Posted January 7, 2000 Posted January 7, 2000 Easy to remember: The Unfunded Actuarial Accrued Liability can never be negative. There is no such restriction on the Expected UAAL. If the latter is negative, use it. Note that the above is not simply a part of the definition of the funding method. Rather, it is part of the requirements contained in the regs under IRC Sec. 412. [This message has been edited by pax (edited 01-07-2000).] I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
John A Posted January 10, 2000 Posted January 10, 2000 What am I missing? If the expected unfunded is minus 50 and the actual unfunded is zero, isn't that a gain rather than a loss?
Chester Posted January 10, 2000 Posted January 10, 2000 The actual unfunded is larger in magnitude than the expected unfunded, so you would have a loss. If the expected unfunded was +50 and the actual unfunded was zero, then you would have a gain. (If your unfunded goes down unexpectedly you have a gain; the opposite effect is a loss).
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.