Young Curmudgeon Posted December 7, 2013 Posted December 7, 2013 Is it feasible to reclassify Defined Benefit assets as rollover assets by simply issuing a 1099? The money never actually leaves the trust, it's just reclassified as a rollover account and no longer affects the DB valuation. I've never heard of this previously but I'm being told it's a normal practice. Sounds a little fishy.
Effen Posted December 7, 2013 Posted December 7, 2013 I doubt the financial institution would be willing to just rename/reclassify the account. Different types of trusts have different requirements. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Andy the Actuary Posted December 7, 2013 Posted December 7, 2013 Normally there is a new account set up and assets are transferred in-kind to new account (Plan should allow). However, probably wouldn't create Hiroshima concerns if account was simply retitled (which I've seen done). The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Rball4 Posted December 9, 2013 Posted December 9, 2013 I have seen this for DB plan terminations where a DC plan is being established (for one person plan who no longer needs high deductions). The custodian reclassifies the assets, but the money never actually moves anywhere.
Young Curmudgeon Posted December 31, 2013 Author Posted December 31, 2013 What if the context was to reclassify assets in the trust to avoid excess assets from gain? For example, one person plan, I have $2.4M in assets, my lumpsum limit. A 1099 issued indicating a rollover distribution, but nothing actually moves. There is still $2.4M in the trust, but now it's a "rollover account" rather than a defined benefit asset so the earnings that would create excess assets are no longer considered. It seems to me that this would fail the criteria as a direct rollover but it's being argued that the current plan is an eligible retirement plan.
masteff Posted January 2, 2014 Posted January 2, 2014 EDIT: deleted my query about a statement BG made which he has now withdrawn. leaving this for now so the next post makes sense. feel free to delete that too BG and I'll delete this. Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
BG5150 Posted January 2, 2014 Posted January 2, 2014 My bad. I didn't see the part about the balance being "returned" to the plan. Never mind. Carry on. I'll delete my original post... QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Young Curmudgeon Posted January 2, 2014 Author Posted January 2, 2014 The DB plan actually is continuing after the "in plan rollover". My concern is that without money physically moving from the account, there has not been a distribution/direct rollover and all of the assets are still part of the actuarial valuation. The position of classifying assets as a rollover account would hold up since the money never moved.
masteff Posted January 2, 2014 Posted January 2, 2014 1) Is the participant in question currently eligible to take the distribution? (And has completed or will complete a form to that effect) 2) Is the participant in question currently eligible to make a rollover contribution to the plan? Especially, does the plan accept rollovers? (And has completed or will complete a form to that effect) Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
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