Guest re4701 Posted March 4, 2014 Posted March 4, 2014 If employee participates in 401k with company A for 5 years from 1989 to 1994 and is fully vested in the plan. Then works for company B (which resulted from a merger of company A and 2 other companies) for a period of 3 1/2 years from 2010-2013. company B's plan had 5 year vesting @ 20% / year. Company B claims employee is only 60% vested. Question: would employee be fully vested due to service with predecessor (company A), or does the 16 year break somehow disqualify the prior service?
ESOP Guy Posted March 5, 2014 Posted March 5, 2014 I don't think the 16 years does it. He had a vested balance when he left company A. So IF he worked for company A again he would be vested when he is rehired. The better question i-- iss company B and company A the same company for purposes of this question. That I can't help you with-- sorry.
Guest re4701 Posted March 5, 2014 Posted March 5, 2014 In this case company B was the result of 3 companies merging including Company A,making company A a predecessor to Company B.
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