austin3515 Posted August 14, 2014 Posted August 14, 2014 Is it possible to elect the "2 year eligibility" provision but waive eligibility for active employees as of the effective date? I assume no, but please confirm. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Bird Posted August 14, 2014 Posted August 14, 2014 No. You could use 0 or 1 and then change it. Ed Snyder
austin3515 Posted August 14, 2014 Author Posted August 14, 2014 I thought of that too, but then thought "the people who benefitted from the immediate eligibility would be kicked out" but now that you mention it, as long as they have $5,000 of comp in their first year they would be ok. And then I guess you would say the next year go to 2 years and the same would apply. So it should only take 2 years in most cases, assuming people earn at least $5,000 in their first year. Do I have it right? Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Bird Posted August 15, 2014 Posted August 15, 2014 I'm not sure it's foolproof but that's pretty much how it would go. Ed Snyder
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