401QUE Posted November 11, 2014 Posted November 11, 2014 I am assuming that non-profit organizations have no individual owners. I have a possible new client the founder (HCE) of which has a daughter also working in the organization. The daughter does not and has not earned over $115,000 in any years, yet they are both treated as HCEs on the TPA's discrimination testing. Is the TPA somehow viewing the founder as an owner and then attributing that "ownership" to the daughter incorrectly? Thank you!
austin3515 Posted November 12, 2014 Posted November 12, 2014 Definitely a blunder... Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
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