Alex Daisy Posted March 12, 2015 Posted March 12, 2015 There are 5 members of a control group, and only 2 out of the 5 companies give a Profit Sharing contribution. The formula is 2% of Compensation. Assuming that the control group passes the Ratio Percentage test, does the Gateway test and 401(a)(4) still apply? Any guidance is greatly appreciated. Alex
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted March 12, 2015 Posted March 12, 2015 Look at Treasury Regulation 1.401(a)(4)-2(b)(2)(i). Is the allocation uniform?
Alex Daisy Posted March 12, 2015 Author Posted March 12, 2015 Look at Treasury Regulation 1.401(a)(4)-2(b)(2)(i). Is the allocation uniform? The PS percentage given to 2 out of the 5 members of the control group is uniformed at 2 percent The other 3 out of 5 controls groups get zero Profit Sharing
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted March 12, 2015 Posted March 12, 2015 Are all of the employers of the controlled group actually participating employers in the plan? If it's a non-standardized or volume submitter document, each employer would have to execute a participation agreement, regardless of being part of a controlled group. Suppose only 2 employers actually executed a participation agreement, adopting the plan for their employees. Also suppose the plan does not automatically make all employers of a controlled group into participating employers in the plan. If coverage passes when just these 2 employers are covered by the plan, then for 401(a)(4) you basically ignore the employees of those other employers who are not participating employers in the plan. edit: pesky typos
Alex Daisy Posted March 12, 2015 Author Posted March 12, 2015 Are all of the employers of the controlled group actually participating employers in the plan? If it's a non-standardized or volume submitter document, each employer would have to execute a participation agreement, regardless of being part of a controlled group. Suppose only 2 employers actually executed a participation agreement, adopting the plan for their employees. Also suppose the plan does not automatically make all employers of a controlled group into participating employers in the plan. If coverage passes when just these 2 employers are covered by the plan, then for 401(a)(4) you basically ignore the employees of those other employers who are not participating employers in the plan. edit: pesky typos Can you define participating employers in the plan?
Tom Poje Posted March 13, 2015 Posted March 13, 2015 if you pass ratio % test, then I don't see how it's possible to fail testing if you test on an allocation basis. everyone who received anything received 2%, so the numbers should be the same as the ratio % test. and there is no gateway when testing on an allocation basis.
K2retire Posted March 13, 2015 Posted March 13, 2015 Are all of the employers of the controlled group actually participating employers in the plan? If it's a non-standardized or volume submitter document, each employer would have to execute a participation agreement, regardless of being part of a controlled group. Suppose only 2 employers actually executed a participation agreement, adopting the plan for their employees. Also suppose the plan does not automatically make all employers of a controlled group into participating employers in the plan. If coverage passes when just these 2 employers are covered by the plan, then for 401(a)(4) you basically ignore the employees of those other employers who are not participating employers in the plan. edit: pesky typos Can you define participating employers in the plan? If it's a non-standardized or volume submitter document, each employer would have to execute a participation agreement, regardless of being part of a controlled group. Some document providers call it a joinder agreement.
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