Stash026 Posted March 31, 2015 Posted March 31, 2015 I'm having a disagreement with the financial manager, so I want to confirm. Non-owner was hired mid-year 2013 and earned less than $115,000. In 2014, his first full year of service, he earned well over the $120,000. In other words, in the look back year he didn't earn enough but it was a partial year. By the letter of the guidelines I do not believe he would be an HCE. Thoughts?
Tom Poje Posted March 31, 2015 Posted March 31, 2015 well the IRS website http://www.irs.gov/Retirement-Plans/Plan-Participant,-Employee/Definitions has the following definition(but perhaps the financial manager knows something the IRS doesn't. if he does, he should tell them).Highly Compensated Employee - An individual who:Owned more than 5% of the interest in the business at any time during the year or the preceding year, regardless of how much compensation that person earned or received, orFor the preceding year, received compensation from the business of more than $115,000 (if the preceding year is 2013 or 2014; $120,000 if the preceding year is 2015), and, if the employer so chooses, was in the top 20% of employees when ranked by compensation. LMOC and Lou S. 2
My 2 cents Posted March 31, 2015 Posted March 31, 2015 Pretty sure that the fact that the person was employed for only part of the year does NOT matter. As a non-owner, I think it is just the total paid that year. LMOC, hr for me and K2retire 3 Always check with your actuary first!
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