Dougsbpc Posted August 4, 2015 Posted August 4, 2015 Have a 1 participant plan with $6 M of private investments. For the first time the one employee will be eligible for the plan. However, it is a profit sharing plan and no contributions are intended. We are thinking about changing it to a 401(k) plan. Suppose the 1 eligible employee never makes salary deferrals and never receives a profit sharing contribution. Would the small plan audit be required if the employee never has an account balance? An audit would probably run $4k to $5k. We are thinking the bond premium would also be about $4k to $5k.
Mike Preston Posted August 4, 2015 Posted August 4, 2015 Cheaper to set up a second PSP. But if no contributions are "intended" the plan will crush itself into disqualified, anyway. Tell plan sponsor that a 3% of pay contribution every third year to protect 6M in qualified money is inexpensive.
BG5150 Posted August 4, 2015 Posted August 4, 2015 Plus, you will need a fidelity bond for the total amount of the assets if they are now qualified assets... QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Dougsbpc Posted August 5, 2015 Author Posted August 5, 2015 Mike The separate plan is good idea. The 3% would not be a problem. I think we can aggregate for 410b. BG5150 - why would a 100% bond be required if one plan covers only the owner and has all the private investments and the other plan covers only the employees?
BG5150 Posted August 6, 2015 Posted August 6, 2015 Since it is no longer a 1-participant plan, a bond would be reqiured for the non-qualified assets to avoid an audit. Unless there are 2 plans. I was going with the 1-plan idea. QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Scuba 401 Posted August 19, 2015 Posted August 19, 2015 I have a case with an owner and his daughters who would be considered key. would the plan have to get the bond if it only covers the owner and his daughters?
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