BG5150 Posted September 24, 2015 Posted September 24, 2015 We've been using the 1984 UP life table in our calculations. (Well, in Relius) Given that many times most of the people I'm testing weren't even born by 1984, should we be using a more recent table? What you you guys use? QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Tom Poje Posted September 24, 2015 Posted September 24, 2015 well that all depends.if it is a db-dc combo I think that table works out best.if it is only dc, then in the process of calculating an e-bar, you divide each person by the APR, so if no one is past retirement (or is an oldie due to 65/5) then it doesn't really matter because at that point it is a constant.if you impute disparity then 1983 IAF works bestyears ago at some talk I did I ran the following as an exampleUsing UP 1984 Mortality table was adds w/ disparityHCE 3.214 .17 3.391NHCE 2.732 .65 3.382NHCE is not in the rate groupUsing 1983 IAF mortality table was adds w/ disparityHCE 2.657 .17 2.834NHCE 2.258 .65 2.908In the rate group with room to spare!of course, you could probably get by grouping accrual rates for UP 1984 but why bother. .............................................................Dang, this was the talk Otis Redding showed up and sang"Sittin' in a 401(k)" (I can't attach a 'mid' file, but if you download the file and delete the '.xls' extension the sound file should work and you can karaoke if you are so inclined)Sittin’ in a lifestyle fundI’ll be sittin’ when retirement comesAutomatic enrollment kicked inThe default investment’s a sinI’m sittin in a 4-0-1 KWatchin’ the funds roll awaySittin’ in a 4-0-1 KWastin’ dimesThe fees they seem to gorge-yaNothin’ changed under P-P-AThe returns are really poorLooks like nothin’ gonna come my wayI’m just sittin in a 4-0-1 KWatchin’ the funds roll awaySittin’ in a 4-0-1 KWastin’ dimesLooks like nothin’s gonna changeEverything still remains the sameI don’t know just what the fund will doThe amount always remains the sameI’m sittin’ here resting my bonesThere ain’t enough to take a loanTwo thousand lies on the phoneJust to make this investment my homeI’m just sittin in a 4-0-1 KWatchin’ the funds roll awaySittin’ in a 4-0-1 KWastin’ dimes SITTING ON THE DOCK OF THE BAY.mid.xls GMK and EBDI 2
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted September 24, 2015 Posted September 24, 2015 1.401(a)(4)-12 defines your options for testing under "Standard interest rate" and "Standard mortality table". Sometimes A) 8.5% with GAM71 Male gets you the results you want in a CB/DC combo, other times B) you're better off using 7.5% post IAM83 Female. If you are trying to get the largest offset value off of the cash balance plan accounts, then (B) above will give you larger PVABs for that offset. Using 7.5% for the pre-retirement testing assumption may even lower this further, but it could cause the rate groups to fail, so watch out for that. However, if your HCEs are a lot younger than your HCEs or your HCE benefit targets are not huge, you may be able to lower your minimum gateway from the 7.5% to 7% or 6% or even 5% by using the 8.5% GAM71 Male as your testing assumption. If you are designing a new cash balance plan, the choice of the interest rate and the actuarial equivalence definition will also have an impact.
Tom Poje Posted September 25, 2015 Posted September 25, 2015 the reason this works: the APRs are at the extreme end of things. for example UP 84 at 8.5% age 65 APR is 95.38 1983 IAF at 7.5% age 65 APR is 122.64 again, part of the formula to determine an E-Bar is to divide by the APR, and if everyone has the same retirement age it is a constant so unless you impute disparity it really shouldn't matter which mortality you use.
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