drakecohen Posted October 27, 2015 Posted October 27, 2015 Would 415(b)(2)(E)(ii) apply to adjusting all optional forms of benefit including lump sums or does it not apply to lump sums? I am getting conflicting opinions. Here is the wording (also attached): (ii) For purposes of adjusting any benefit under subparagraph (B) for any form of benefit subject to section 417(e)(3), the interest rate assumption shall not be less than the greatest of - (I) 5.5 percent (II) the rate that provides a benefit of not more than 105 percent of the benefit that would be provided if the applicable interest rate (as defined in section 417(e)(3)) were the interest rate assumption, or (III) the rate specified under the plan. Example: High 3-year average salary/annual benefit: $100,000 Participant age: 70 Plan interest rate: 5% AMT15 mortality table (i) 5.5% factor - 10.2 (II) 417(e)(3)/1.05 = 11.4 (III) plan 5%: 10.5 Would the maximum lump sum payable be $1,020,000 = 10.2 x $100,000 or does this section not apply to lump sums? Related question: any limits on the mortality table that can be used? For example, instead of AMT15 can GAR94 set back 30 years be used for (i) and (iii) above? 415b.pdf
david rigby Posted October 27, 2015 Posted October 27, 2015 Have you asked your actuary this question?By the way, what is "AMT15"? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Calavera Posted October 27, 2015 Posted October 27, 2015 i) and ii) should use Applicable Mortality (that is what AMT probably stands for) iii) should use plan's mortality So if maturity value of 10.2 correspond to the applicable mortality, 415 lump sum is $1,020,000
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