Pammie57 Posted March 17, 2017 Posted March 17, 2017 Two participants in the same plan are getting married and plan to purchase their first home. Their plan allows for participant loans. They want to take hardships to use as a down payment on their new home. Do they have to take loans first? I am thinking that most lenders won't take a downpayment of borrowed money. Is there a way around the taking the loan first requirement for this situation? Thanks!
Belgarath Posted March 17, 2017 Posted March 17, 2017 Take a look at 1/401(k)-1(d)(3)(iv)(D). this may help you out. Essentially, a loan doesn't have to be taken first if the loan increases the need. Pammie57 1
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