k man Posted August 22, 2000 Posted August 22, 2000 Do you think it is a problem if a financial institution charges individual participants a fee for transferring assets in kind that are held in a directed brokerage account (option) contained within a 401(k)? The reaon for the charge is that it takes alot more time to transfer these assets in kind as opposed to liquidation and then rollover. Is this more appropriately a plan expense?
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