Basically Posted January 20, 2022 Posted January 20, 2022 I know that a 5% or better owner must take an RMD when they turn 72 even if they are still working. Is a wife also required to take her RMD even if still working? Do attribution rules require her to take an RMD once she becomes RMD age even if she is still working?
Basically Posted January 20, 2022 Author Posted January 20, 2022 Quote John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Senior Contributor 139 2.2k Posts Posted December 23, 2021 Is this non owner still working for the employer/plan sponsor? Are they an indirect owner through attribution? I read another post where I asked about an RMD for a non owner with no attribution. John did ask the above question. Sooo, I'm going with attribution does matter and I'm going to assume the wife is required to take an RMD due to her being an owner through attribution.
CuseFan Posted January 20, 2022 Posted January 20, 2022 Yes and yes. Luke Bailey and John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA 2 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
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