Guest Posted September 27, 2000 Posted September 27, 2000 I have a client who is past his plan NRD and his benefit is max'd out at the 415(B)(2)(B) 100% of comp limit. Since the comp limit is supposedly absolute, his lump sum is decreasing each year. Is this correct? If so,is there any remedy?
david rigby Posted September 27, 2000 Posted September 27, 2000 Since he is over NRA, has he thought about commencing benefit payments? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
AndyH Posted September 28, 2000 Posted September 28, 2000 Yes, I think the situation of a decreasing lump sum is correct. We've had one in the same situation.
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