k man Posted November 21, 2000 Posted November 21, 2000 Is it a prohibited transaction for the sole shareholder of a professional association (law firm)to loan money to the P.A. so that the P.A. can make the annual contribution to the firm's defined benefit plan?
Guest Posted November 21, 2000 Posted November 21, 2000 No PT, a PT is defined specifically as transaction between the Plan and a party in interest. The loan is between the plan sponsor and its owner- not related to the plan. I see that this is no different
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