mming Posted Tuesday at 07:28 PM Posted Tuesday at 07:28 PM A plan has a 100% match on the first 6% of comp. If I recall correctly, a formula can be considered safe harbor if you contribute a match only based on the first 6% of comp, but only if that amount is less than 100% of the first 4% of comp. That would make this match on the first 4% of comp safe harbor, and the match on the next 2% a fixed non-SH match. Since there's a portion that's non-SH, the plan would be subject to ADP and ACP testing - do I have all of this correct? Would the ACP testing be done using the entire match or only the non-SH portion, i.e., the amount based on the 4% - 6% of comp? Thanks in advance for any assistance.
WCC Posted Tuesday at 09:38 PM Posted Tuesday at 09:38 PM 2 hours ago, mming said: do I have all of this correct? No. A match of 100% on the first 6% satisfies the ADP and ACP safe harbor (assuming no allocation conditions, vesting rules, notice requirements, etc. are satisfied). The 4% rule you reference comes into play when a discretionary match is funded in addition to a safe harbor formula. If there is a discretionary match in addition to a safe harbor match, then to satisfy ACP safe harbor, the match cannot take into account more than 6% of pay and the match contribution cannot exceed 4% of pay. Bill Presson, CuseFan and Eve Sav 3
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted Wednesday at 12:22 AM Posted Wednesday at 12:22 AM And the plan must have the safe harbor provisions. It is not considered safe harbor if the plan does not say it is safe harbor. Eve Sav, Bri, Bill Presson and 1 other 4
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